Read Linda Bamber's "The Tempest and The Traffic of Women." What is her argument? Explain whether you agree or disagree with her description of the men's actions in the play?
Linda Bamber argues that the role of women in "The Tempest" and in Shakespeare's other plays has been portrayed as sort of an "object role", that the women are often used by men for their own benefit without having any input from the women themselves, often in the form of marriage. She also claims that the men use the women to further them in their power struggles with other men specifically. "We may think of all the fathers in Shakespeare who have battled their daughters for the power to choose their daughter's sexual partner; more broadly, we may think of all the men who have suffered and made others suffer when they lose control of 'their' women's sexuality" I agree with her that Shakespeare does portray women in the role of objects (exemplified in both "Romeo and Juliet" and "A Midsummer Night's Dream" when the fathers try to marry off their daughters even if it goes against the will of the daughters) but I wouldn't go so far as to generalize all the men and women in Shakespeare's plays in that way. For example, in "Macbeth" Macbeth is not shown using his wife as a pawn. I think it's quite the opposite since it's the ambitious Lady Macbeth (who isn't daughter being forced into a marriage, but a woman who is under the control of Macbeth) who convinces Macbeth to usurp King Duncan by killing him. Also, in "A Midsummer Night's Dream" Oberon's wife Titania goes against his will by keeping the child she dotes over, showing that she isn't a pawn to Oberon even though Oberon tries to make her be one. I do think that Bamber makes a good point about "The Tempest" specifically (Alonso getting Claribel married off and Prospero using Miranda's affection for Ferdinand to his own benefit) but I don't think she should generalize it to all men and women in Shakespeare's plays even if it is applicable to many of them.
Hubiba, Stick specifically to "The Tempest" (which should be in italics, not quotes, but the program won't let me italicize). You may have some good ideas about other plays, but you have enough to think about with Bamber and the one. I realize Bamber mentions "MSND," but simply stick to our play, using specifics references to words of both Prospero and Ferdinand.
Linda Bamber argues that the role of women in "The Tempest" and in Shakespeare's other plays has been portrayed as sort of an "object role", that the women are often used by men for their own benefit without having any input from the women themselves, often in the form of marriage. She also claims that the men use the women to further them in their power struggles with other men specifically. "We may think of all the fathers in Shakespeare who have battled their daughters for the power to choose their daughter's sexual partner; more broadly, we may think of all the men who have suffered and made others suffer when they lose control of 'their' women's sexuality" I agree with her that Shakespeare does portray women in the role of objects (exemplified in both "Romeo and Juliet" and "A Midsummer Night's Dream" when the fathers try to marry off their daughters even if it goes against the will of the daughters) but I wouldn't go so far as to generalize all the men and women in Shakespeare's plays in that way. For example, in "Macbeth" Macbeth is not shown using his wife as a pawn. I think it's quite the opposite since it's the ambitious Lady Macbeth (who isn't daughter being forced into a marriage, but a woman who is under the control of Macbeth) who convinces Macbeth to usurp King Duncan by killing him. Also, in "A Midsummer Night's Dream" Oberon's wife Titania goes against his will by keeping the child she dotes over, showing that she isn't a pawn to Oberon even though Oberon tries to make her be one. I do think that Bamber makes a good point about "The Tempest" specifically (Alonso getting Claribel married off and Prospero using Miranda's affection for Ferdinand to his own benefit) but I don't think she should generalize it to all men and women in Shakespeare's plays even if it is applicable to many of them.
ReplyDeleteHubiba,
ReplyDeleteStick specifically to "The Tempest" (which should be in italics, not quotes, but the program won't let me italicize). You may have some good ideas about other plays, but you have enough to think about with Bamber and the one. I realize Bamber mentions "MSND," but simply stick to our play, using specifics references to words of both Prospero and Ferdinand.